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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 09:31

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

I'm looking for an answer from people who consider themselves "Gender Critical", or transphobic, or TERFs, and my question is this - Why would you refuse to use the pronouns someone wants? What does it cost you? Where's the harm?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.